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NCERT Math Guess Paper-1 | Class 10, CBSE (CCE) Formative Assessment-III (F 3)


CBSE CCE NCERT
Class X, Mathematics  
(Practice Paper-1 / Guess Paper-1)
Formative Assessment - III (FA-3)

Time: 1 ½ Hours           
M.M.: 40
1. (i) Write the general form of a quadratic equation in standard form.
(ii) If 6x2 – x – 1 = 0 then  x =  . . . . . .?
(iii) The nth term of an AP: a, a+d, a+2d, . . . . . . . is tn = . . . .  
(iv) In AP:  a, a+d, a+2d, . . . . . l, the Pth term from the end = . . . .
(v) Find the sum of the AP: 4, 9, 14, . . . . . . . 89.
(vi) Find the distance between the points (3,4) and (6, –3).
(vii) Angle of elevation = . . . . . .
(viii) Write the equation of x-axis = ?
(ix) Abscissa of any point on the y-axis is  . . . . . .
(x) Which term of the AP: 2.9, 3.2, 3.5, 3.8, . . . . is 8 ?
2. The product of two consecutive positive integers is 306. We need to find the integers.
3. A train travels 360 km at a uniform speed if the speed had been 5 km/hr more, it would have taken 1 hr less for the same journey. Find the speed of the train.
4. How many three digit numbers are divisible by 7 ?
5. Find the point on the x-axis which is equidistant from (2, –5) and (–2, 9).
6. Prove that the tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel.
7. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that
     AB + CD = AD + BC
8. Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 6 cm  AB = 5 cm  and / ABC = 60O, then construct a triangle whose sides are ¾ of the corresponding sides of the triangle ABC.
9. Find the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices are taken in order (–4, –2), (–3, –5), (3, –2) and (2, 3).
10. A 1.5 m tall boy is standing at some distance from a 30 m tall building. The angle of elevation from his eyes to the top of the building. Increase from 30O to 60O as the he moves towards the building. Find the distance he walked towards the building.
11. (a) The altitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than the base. If the hypotenuse is 13 cm, find the other two sides.
(b) How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 250 ?         
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Class 10 NCERT (CBSE) English (Communicative) | Literature Reader - Fiction | The Ultimate Safari | CCE type Sample Questions - Guide


NCERT Class X English (Communicative) - Literature Reader
THE ULTIMATE SAFARI
CBSE syllabus (latest CCE pattern)
Sample Questions - Answers
Q.1: What efforts did the grandmother make to give a home away from home to her grand-children?   
Q.2: What did the guide mean when he said, “Must move like animals among animals”?
Q.3: Why did the grandmother decide to move with the rest of the group instead of waiting for her husband?
Q.4: Explain the statement made by the narrator, “I say grandmother before grandfather because it’s like that”. OR, Why does the narrator take her grandmother’s name before her grandfather’s ?
Q.5: Why did the narrator want to go back to her village?
Q.6: Why has the narrator named this as “The Ultimate Safari” ?
Q.7: Why did the grandmother not want to return to her village in Mozambique?  
Q.8: Write a few lines about the character of the narrator of the story, “The Ultimate Safari”.  
See the Answers
Further study – The Ultimate Safari           

The Ultimate Safari (Fiction) | Class X NCERT (CBSE) English Literature Reader (Communicative) - MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) [Read]

The Ultimate Safari | Class X, Interact in English (Literature Reader) | Ncert Cbse English (Communicative) | Exercise Answers [Read]

Class IX Summative Assessment 2 (Term II) Science Guess Paper 2 | CBSE syllabus CCE type NCERT textbooks


Class IX Science
(Sample Question Paper-2 / Guess Paper-2 / Practice Paper 2)
CBSE – CCE - NCERT
Summative Assessment - II (SA 2 - Term II)

Time: 3½ hours           
M.M.: 80
Instructions
1. Questions 1 to 5 are 1 mark questions to be answered in one word or one sentence.
2. Questions 6 to 14 are 2 marks questions to be answered in about 50 words.
3. Questions 15 to 23 are 3 marks questions to be answered in about 70 words.
4. Questions 27 to 41 are multiple choice questions (MCQs) based on Practical Skills carrying 1 mark each question.

1. In what type of wave alternate compressions and rarefactions are formed?
2. Although gravitational force which acts on all bodies is proportional to their masses, then why heavy bodies do not fall faster than lighter bodies?
3. Name the universally accepted standard reference for measuring atomic masses.
4. What type of mixtures is separated by the technique of crystallization?
5. What does a neuron look like?
6. List two main functions of plasma membrane.
7. Name a cell organelle found only in a plant cell and also its type.
8. Write the differences between simple and complex tissues. Give one example of each.
9. List two characteristics of meristematic tissue.
10. Describe the mechanism of action of antibiotics.
11. How would you separate dyes in blue-black ink using chromatography?
12. Number of protons neutrons and electrons in the four specimen A, B, C and D are respectively 6, 6, 6; 7, 7, 7; 6, 8, 6; and 9, 10, 10. Tell which of them are: (a) Isotopes (b) Isobars. Why?
13. Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?
14. Give one example each of:
    (a) Positive work done by a force
    (b) Negative work done by a force.
15. Mention three characteristics of sound waves. State the factors on which they depend.
16. Describe each of the following muscular tissues found in our body:
    (a) Striated muscle  (b) Non-striated muscle  (c) Cardiac muscle.
17. Draw a neat diagram of neuron and identify –
    (a) The long thin hair like part  (b) Many short, branched parts arising from the cell body.
18. Write three differences between broilers and layers.
19. What is meant by fractional distillation? How is it different from simple distillation? Give one application of fractional distillation.
20. What is Avogadro number? How many atoms of each element are present in 6.3 gm of nitric acid (HNO3)? [H=1.0, N=14.0, O=16.0 u, NA=6.022 x 1023 mol–1]
21. Calculate the number of molecules present in 90 gm of water. [H=1.0, O=16.0 u, NA=6.022 x 1023 mol–1]
22. Write two differences between ‘g’ and ‘G’.
23. A man weighing 60 kg carries a box weighing 10 kg to the top of a building 10 m high. Calculate the work done by the man on the box. Also calculate the total work done by him. [g=10 ms–2]
24. (A) Draw a diagram of prokaryotic cell and label on it cell wall, Ribosomes, Nucleoid, plasma membrane.
     (B) Write two differences between a prokaryotic cell and eukaryotic cell.
25. Compare the models of an atom proposed by Thomson, Rutherford and Bohr in a tabular form giving two characteristics of each.
26. (A) Derive the formula of kinetic energy of an object of mass ‘m’ moving with a uniform velocity ‘u’.
     (B) A force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5 ms–1 to 2 ms–1. Calculate the work done by the force.
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
27. To prepare a mount of human cheek cell, the sample is collected from:
(a) Outside of cheek with a blade
(b) Inner side of cheek with a blade
(c) Outside of cheek with a tooth pick
(d) Inner side of cheek with a tooth pick
28. You are asked to select a slide, showing parenchyma cells from a slide box containing a few unlabelled slides. Which of the following would help you to correctly identify the slide?
(a) Structure of the cells as seen under low power of the compound microscope.
(b) Observing the slide with the help of a simple microscope.
(c) A colour of the material on the slide.
(d) None of the above.
29. Four students recorded their data in the experiment done to detect the presence of metanil yellow in the adulterated arhar dal.
Student
Procedure
Observation
Inference
(i)
5 g dal + 5 g metanil yellow
Dal turns yellow
Metanil yellow is present
(ii)
5 g dal + 5 ml water + 2 drops of HCl
Solutions turns pink
Metanil yellow is present in the sample
(iii)
5 g dal + 5 ml water + a pinch of metanil yellow
Water turns yellow
Metanil yellow is present
(iv)
5 g dal + 5 ml water + 2 drops of HCl
Water turns yellow and then pink
Metanil yellow is absent
  which recording has been correctly reported by student:
(a) (i)  (b) (ii)  (c) (iii)  (d) (iv)
30. A student wants to prepare a temporary mount of spirogyra. Where should he search for a fresh specimen?
(a) is a pond of salty water.
(b) is a pond of stagnant dirty water
(c) is a stream of running fresh water
(d) is a stream of running salty water
31. The structure associated with earthworm, cockroach, bony fish and birds are given below in a series. Choose the correct series:
(a) Pneumatic bones, gills, Chitinous plates, metameres
(b) Gills, metameres, Chitinous plates, pneumatic bones
(c) Metameres, gills, Chitinous plates, pneumatic bones
(d) Metameres, Chitinous plates, gills, pneumatic bones
32. Which one of the following will form a translucent solution in water?
(a) Sugar  (b) Starch  (c) Soil  (d) Sand
33. What is not observed when a magnet is moved repeatedly through a mixture of iron fillings and sulphur placed on a paper?  
(a) Iron fillings stick to the magnet
(b) A black mass of iron sulphide is formed
(c) Sulphur powder is left on the paper
(d) Each of the above.
34. When dilute sulphuric acid is added to zinc granules, we observe that:
(a) a precipitate is formed
(b) the reaction mixture turns yellow
(c) the container remains cool
(d) bubbles start coming from the surface of the zinc granules.
35. When water boils, its temperature:
(a) decreases  (b) increases  (c) remains the same  (d) first increases and then decreases
36. Out of the following, the substance which can be separated from a mixture by sublimation is:
(a) sugar  (b) ammonium chloride  (c) common salt  (d) sand
37. The physical quantity that will remain unchanged after reflection of a sound wave is:
(a) velocity  (b) wavelength  (c) frequency  (d) all of these.
38. You are given a sphere of radius 2 cm. If you are asked to select a best suited spring balance to determine the weight, then out of the following which one would you prefer? The sphere is made of an alloy of density 7 x 103 kgm–3.   
(a) Range 0 – 1000 gwt, Least count 5 gwt
(b) Range 0 – 500 gwt, Least count 2.5 gwt
(c) Range 0 – 250 gwt, Least count 2.5 gwt
(d) Range 0 – 100 gwt, Least count 1 gwt
39. The weight of a body felt in tap water and salty water are WA and WB respectively, then:
(a) WA = WB  (b) WA > WB  (c) WA < WB   (d) 2WA = WB
40. The temperature - time (t – T) graph for showing cooling of hot water is best represented in the figure.
(A) (i)  (B) (ii)   (C) (iii)   (D) (iv)
41. When a pulse produced in a string moves through it and strikes a rigid pole, it’s reflected back and the shape of the reflected pulse resembles the shape given is – 
    (A) (i)   (B) (ii)   (C) (iii)   (D) (iv)
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